Re: ,Language' in language name?
From: | daniel andreasson <danielandreasson@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, November 28, 2001, 21:49 |
I (Daniel) wrote:
> > Could there be a correlation like this?
> >
> > developed conculture -> does not contain "language",
> > but rather a toponym or some word that describes
> > the people, or similar.
> >
> > no conculture -> contains "language", since there
> > is no culture to refer to.
Christophe wrote:
> So, taking away Itakian and Moten since their cases are a
> little unclear, only 2 out of 8 languages fill the correlation
> :))) . Am I strange, or is simply the correlation inexistent?
> :)))
Hehe. I should have known that this theory of mine was wrong
since all the theories I come up with a little too quickly
turn out to be wrong, or rather the other way around. The
theories, that is.
From what I've seen so far, the correlation is actually the other
way around. Or non-existant. Anyone up for making a poll? :)
||| daniel