another silly phonology question
|From:||Yoon Ha Lee <yl112@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, November 28, 2000, 3:24|
I've been trying to look at phonologies and how symmetry tends to operate
in them. I'm probably noticing out of a weird sample, but there seem to
be a number of languages that just have /h/ as a glottal. Is there a
reason for this? I was almost going to delete /h/ from Chevraqis because
I didn't like just having *one* glottal, but looked at some actual
languages and got confused. Are there certain tendencies for *how*
language phonologies violate symmetry, when they do?
P.S. After missing bunches of messages I now realize that OT probably
means optimality theory. I kept thinking, "It can't be 'Old Testament,'
but what *could* it be?" <Wry g> Thanks to Roger (was it you?) for
posting that website on phonology--I mean to look at it carefully *after*
I get some of my homework out of the way....