| From: | Shreyas Sampat <ssampat@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Saturday, February 15, 2003, 19:09 |
>I think I've seen it claimed that the lack of pro-drop in French, unlike >Italian & Spanish, is a result of Germanic influence.On the subject of pro-drop, my Syntax class mentioned that modern Hebrew permits it in present tense 1sg and 2sg, but not elsewhere. Anyone know why this is the case? --- Shreyas Sampat
| Mike Adams <abrigon@...> | |
| Dan Sulani <dnsulani@...> |