On 15 Feb, Shreyas Sampat wrote:
> >I think I've seen it claimed that the lack of pro-drop in French, unlike
> >Italian & Spanish, is a result of Germanic influence.
>
> On the subject of pro-drop, my Syntax class mentioned that modern Hebrew
> permits it in present tense 1sg and 2sg, but not elsewhere. Anyone know
> why this is the case?
What exactly is meant by "pro-drop"?
Dan Sulani
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likehsna rtem zuv tikuhnuh auag inuvuz vaka'a
A word is an awesome thing.