| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Wednesday, February 21, 2001, 0:34 |
J Matthew Pearson wrote:> Because "to be"--insofar as it's a verb at all--is an intransitive verb.But my point was that Arabic treats it as transitive, so why wouldn't it be possible for an ergative language to treat it the same way? -- Cenedl heb iaith, cenedl heb galon A nation without a language is a nation without a heart - Welsh proverb ICQ: 18656696 AIM Screen-Name: NikTaylor42
| J Matthew Pearson <pearson@...> |