Re: THEORY: derivation question
From: | Tom Wier <artabanos@...> |
Date: | Sunday, March 28, 1999, 2:51 |
John Cowan wrote:
> > Anyway, the point stands that if analogical pressures hadn't applied,
> > all of these would have had plurals in -ves only.
>
> Actually, "dwarves" is analogical too, according to JRRT:
> the true etymological plural is "dwarrows" or "dwerrows".
> In fact, I'm a little puzzled where the final "-f" comes from,
> I would have expected "dwarg".
Close. ME "dwerf, dwergh", OE "dweorg, dweorh".
D'you think it has to do with the same phenomenon that resulted
in the /f/ in "enough"? The <-ow> plural is natural enough, considering
the OE <-g>.
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Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
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Website: <http://www.angelfire.com/tx/eclectorium/>
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."
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