Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement
|Date:||Sunday, December 23, 2007, 22:29|
>"T. A. McLeay" <conlang@...> wrote:
>The Burmese words for "Burma" and "Myanmar" contain no /r/.* For
>instance, "Myanmar" is "Myanma" in Burmese, and "Burma" is "Bama".
>The <r> represents a low tone because low tones are long and
>long /a:/ is represented in non-rhotic English as <ar>. Americans
>pronounce an /r/ that does not exist in the original word, because
>it is based on an orthography not intended for them.
>[*]: Historically the my- of "Myanmar" was mr-
Fascinating! Who knew? But I'm wondering if we should limit the /r/
to Americans. I copied the following from the Wiktionary entry.
Chinese: 缅甸 (Miǎndiàn)
Croatian: Burma (hr) f.
Finnish: Burma (fi)
Greek: Βιρμανία (virmanía)
f., Μυανμάρ (mianmár) n.,
Hebrew: בורמה (burma)
Italian: Birmania (it)
Japanese: ビルマ (Biruma)
Maltese: Burma (mt)
(Myanmā), ဗမာ (Bamā)
Norwegian: Burma (no)
Polish: Birma f.
Portuguese: Birmânia f.
Russian: Бирма (Bírma) f.
Spanish: Birmania (es) f.
Swedish: Burma (sv)