Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

caeruleancentaur wrote:
>> "T. A. McLeay" <conlang@...> wrote:
>
>> The Burmese words for "Burma" and "Myanmar" contain no /r/.* For
>> instance, "Myanmar" is "Myanma" in Burmese, and "Burma" is "Bama".
>> The <r> represents a low tone because low tones are long and
>> long /a:/ is represented in non-rhotic English as <ar>. Americans
>> pronounce an /r/ that does not exist in the original word, because
>> it is based on an orthography not intended for them.
>
>> [*]: Historically the my- of "Myanmar" was mr-
>
> Fascinating!  Who knew?  But I'm wondering if we should limit the /r/
> to Americans.  I copied the following from the Wiktionary entry.
Unfortunately I can't read a lot of them (a lot have been turned into
codes) but, I suppose, they've borrowed it from American English or
they've borrowed it from English English and don't necessarily pronounce
the /r/ or they've done the same thing as American English and
misinterpreted the English transliteration. Given the Japanese "Biruma",
the last one seems to be the most likely.

I find it strange that so many have -ir- in them. Does anyone know how
that's come about?

> Chinese: &#32517;&#30008; (Mi&#462;ndiàn)
> Croatian: Burma (hr) f.
> Dutch: Birma
> Esperanto: Birmo
> Finnish: Burma (fi)
> French: Birmanie
> Greek: &#914;&#953;&#961;&#956;&#945;&#957;&#943;&#945; (virmanía)
> f., &#924;&#965;&#945;&#957;&#956;&#940;&#961; (mianmár) n.,
> &#924;&#960;&#959;&#973;&#961;&#956;&#945; (búrma)
> f.
> Hebrew: &#1489;&#1493;&#1512;&#1502;&#1492; (burma)
> Interlingua: Birmania
> Italian: Birmania (it)
> Japanese: &#12499;&#12523;&#12510; (Biruma)
> Maltese: Burma (mt)
> Myanmar: &#4121;&#4153;&#4123;&#4116;&#4153;&#8204;&#4121;&#4140;
> (Myanm&#257;), &#4119;&#4121;&#4140; (Bam&#257;)
> Norwegian: Burma (no)
> Polish: Birma f.
> Portuguese: Birmânia f.
> Russian: &#1041;&#1080;&#1088;&#1084;&#1072; (Bírma) f.
> Spanish: Birmania (es) f.
> Swedish: Burma (sv)
>
> Charlie

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