Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement
|From:||T. A. McLeay <conlang@...>|
|Date:||Monday, December 24, 2007, 0:27|
>> "T. A. McLeay" <conlang@...> wrote:
>> The Burmese words for "Burma" and "Myanmar" contain no /r/.* For
>> instance, "Myanmar" is "Myanma" in Burmese, and "Burma" is "Bama".
>> The <r> represents a low tone because low tones are long and
>> long /a:/ is represented in non-rhotic English as <ar>. Americans
>> pronounce an /r/ that does not exist in the original word, because
>> it is based on an orthography not intended for them.
>> [*]: Historically the my- of "Myanmar" was mr-
> Fascinating! Who knew? But I'm wondering if we should limit the /r/
> to Americans. I copied the following from the Wiktionary entry.
Unfortunately I can't read a lot of them (a lot have been turned into
codes) but, I suppose, they've borrowed it from American English or
they've borrowed it from English English and don't necessarily pronounce
the /r/ or they've done the same thing as American English and
misinterpreted the English transliteration. Given the Japanese "Biruma",
the last one seems to be the most likely.
I find it strange that so many have -ir- in them. Does anyone know how
that's come about?
> Chinese: 缅甸 (Miǎndiàn)
> Croatian: Burma (hr) f.
> Dutch: Birma
> Esperanto: Birmo
> Finnish: Burma (fi)
> French: Birmanie
> Greek: Βιρμανία (virmanía)
> f., Μυανμάρ (mianmár) n.,
> Μπούρμα (búrma)
> Hebrew: בורמה (burma)
> Interlingua: Birmania
> Italian: Birmania (it)
> Japanese: ビルマ (Biruma)
> Maltese: Burma (mt)
> Myanmar: မ္ရန္‌မာ
> (Myanmā), ဗမာ (Bamā)
> Norwegian: Burma (no)
> Polish: Birma f.
> Portuguese: Birmânia f.
> Russian: Бирма (Bírma) f.
> Spanish: Birmania (es) f.
> Swedish: Burma (sv)