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Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

From:Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Date:Thursday, December 13, 2007, 22:23
On Dec 13, 2007 4:24 PM, T. A. McLeay <conlang@...> wrote:

> Likewise, it's worth noting that "aren't" could develop from "amn't" by > purely phonetic processes in non-rhotic dialects---the orthography, as > ever, misleads---and then be generalised to rhotic ones, much as > Americans put an /r/ in Burma and Myanmar that was never there before.
We simply put an /r/ where you put an <r>. Hardly our fault. :) But I find it more likely that the "aren't" in "aren't I" is the same morpheme as the one in "they aren't", rather than a morphed version of "amn't", which at least in Rhoticia became "ain't" AFAIK. -- Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>