Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement
|From:||René Uittenbogaard <ruittenb@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, December 13, 2007, 16:41|
2007/12/13, David J. Peterson <dedalvs@...>:
> You know, there's kind of a similar phenomenon in English
> regarding relative clauses. Consider:
> I, who am a captain, prefer to wear briefs.
> ?*I, who is a captain, prefer to wear briefs.
> I'd say that's pretty straightforward, but then...
> ?!?*You can give the book to me, who am a captain.
> ?You can give the book to me, who is a captain.
I suddenly remembered an old translation of John 4:9:
In Dutch (Statenvertaling, 1635):
9a. Zo zeide dan de Samaritaanse vrouw tot Hem: Hoe begeert Gij,
Die een Jood zijt, van mij te drinken, die een Samaritaanse
Note "die ... ben" (who ... am).
This is apparently in the King James Version:
9a. Then saith the woman of Samaria unto him, How is it that thou,
being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria?
But my guess is that this translation was primarily intended to
give as accurate a translation as possible. It probably didn't
reflect actual usage in the time the translation was written.