Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

Hi.

I've just read that. If we admit language is ruled by itself, case in which
latin syntax doesn't have anything to do with english... for instance, why
should anti-sexist (or pro-, who knows?) concern guide its usage instead? It
is just arbitrary. If we are to let the languages run by themselves, I can't
understand why so much extraneous* influence is accepted. I'm asking
sincerely, I can't understand it ; ).

(well, if it is not extraneous, neither is prescriptivism...)

Someone said latin do/use cases better than english, I agree, even if
sanskrit is way better ; ). I can't see why this criterion is shunned, but
another, politeness, allowed. When I hear "we brazilians are / nós
brasileiros somos", I hate it... just because I like concordance, and
concordance of meaning is (for me) just weapon's name. That's it, my
preferences guiding my use of language. If someone thinks politeness is more
important than anything else, that's fine for me, but I really never saw one
of those being so receptive when the case is the contrary.


Edgard.



On Dec 13, 2007 7:39 PM, David J. Peterson <dedalvs@...> wrote: