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Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

From:Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Date:Sunday, December 23, 2007, 16:41
On Dec 23, 2007 10:57 AM, caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...>

> >Jeff Rollin <jeff.rollin@...> wrote: > >AFAIK the /r/ in "Myanmar" and the first /r/ in "Burma" have always > >been there (for people with rhotic accents, anyhoo); >
Not so. The spelling "Burma" began life as a non-rhotic phonetic transcription of the native name - which is something like [bV:m@], AIUI, but I've never heard Burmese. Speakers of rhotic Englishes then interpreted the name as [br\=m@] (modulo YAEPT considerations). Again AIUI, same is true for Myanma, where the final <-r> is there to lengthen the final <-a> so it gets interpreted as /a/ instead of /@/. -- Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>