Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

>>Gary Shannon wrote:
>>...much as Americans put an /r/ in Burma and Myanmar that was never
>>there before.

>Jeff Rollin <jeff.rollin@...> wrote:
>AFAIK the /r/ in "Myanmar" and the first /r/ in "Burma" have always
>been there (for people with rhotic accents, anyhoo); I suppose it's
>possible some people pronounce "Burma" as "Burmar" though.
Are you talking about the /r/ in BuRma or an added /r/ as in BurmaR?

According to the Wiktionary entry, every language listed has an /r/
in the name.  Only Chinese does not.  Interestingly, the Burmese is
either Myanmar or Myanma.  Also given is the Burmese "bama."

I have never heard an American put an /r/ on the end of the name.  I
can't speak for other Anglophones, though.

Charlie

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