Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement
|Date:||Sunday, December 23, 2007, 16:07|
>>Gary Shannon wrote:
>>...much as Americans put an /r/ in Burma and Myanmar that was never
>Jeff Rollin <jeff.rollin@...> wrote:
>AFAIK the /r/ in "Myanmar" and the first /r/ in "Burma" have always
>been there (for people with rhotic accents, anyhoo); I suppose it's
>possible some people pronounce "Burma" as "Burmar" though.
Are you talking about the /r/ in BuRma or an added /r/ as in BurmaR?
According to the Wiktionary entry, every language listed has an /r/
in the name. Only Chinese does not. Interestingly, the Burmese is
either Myanmar or Myanma. Also given is the Burmese "bama."
I have never heard an American put an /r/ on the end of the name. I
can't speak for other Anglophones, though.