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Re: OT: Latin subject-verb agreement

From:caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...>
Date:Monday, December 24, 2007, 4:52
>"T. A. McLeay" <conlang@...> wrote:
>Unfortunately I can't read a lot of them (a lot have been turned >into
codes)
>>caeruleancentaur wrote:
>> Greek: &#914;&#953;&#961;&#956;&#945;&#957;&#943;&#945; (virmanía) >> f., &#924;&#965;&#945;&#957;&#956;&#940;&#961; (mianmár) n., >> &#924;&#960;&#959;&#973;&#961;&#956;&#945; (búrma) >> f.
I am sorry about those codes. That's how it pasted from Wiktionary & I don't know enough to do anything about it. I thought that maybe conlang would solve the problem. At least some came through to illustrate my point. Charlie