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Re: OT: What makes a good conlang? (was Re: Super OT: Re: CHAT : JRRT)

From:Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
Date:Thursday, March 11, 2004, 21:30
En réponse à Trebor Jung :


>"I'll defer to others on this, but if you've got the directionality of these >sound changes listed right, they seem...well, backward. I can't imagine >them happening--at least not categorically. Any thoughts on this, anyone?" > >I agree, these sound changes seem quite unreasonable. I would expect >something like this instead: >H -> w (doesn't /H/ represent French <u> in <nuit>?)
I think Teoh isn't using X-SAMPA here, so H doesn't necessarily have this value. Indeed, in Kirshenbaum, H is SAMPA X\: voiceless pharyngeal fricative. But I don't know whether Teoh was writing in Kirshenbaum here.
>h -> ?/t/k/f >x -> k_h -> k
Actually, neither your sound changes nor Teoh's are reasonable. Unless strong influence from the phonetic environment, phones usually don't go "stronger". They tend rather to weaken (law of least effort). So stops will naturally fricativise, but fricatives will only rarely become stops (why do languages still have stops nowadays then you may ask. Simple: there are things "stronger" than simple stops: aspirated stops, geminate stops - which can arise from vowel deletion, also a natural sound change going in the way of the least effort -, etc... Those will naturally weaken into simple stops, and as I indicated for the geminates, can themselves occur naturally :) ). Instead, they will tend to become approximants or even disappear completely. Also, sound changes rarely go further than one step in the chart at a time. A change h -> t, besides being already unreasonable for having a fricative turning into a stop, is even more unreasonable for having a *glottal* fricative turning into an *alveolar* stop! How do you justify such a leap?! :) (note that it's not impossible. French has an uvular fricative evolved from an alveolar trill, through an uvular trill step. Still, that's less distance than h -> t :) ) The only way to have such "backwards" sound changes would be to justify them through their environment, i.e. having a fricative becoming a stop because of an influence from another sound. But even then it seems quite difficult. Sounds always change for a reason, most often inertia (law of the least effort). It will tend to assimilate neighbouring sounds (or even less neighbouring ones, look at the German umlaut), erase the weakest ones (unstressed vowels for instance), etc... It will *not* strengthen sounds. So the presented sound changes are indeed unreasonable, at least until they are given a proper environment. Christophe Grandsire. http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr You need a straight mind to invent a twisted conlang.