From: | Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> |
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Date: | Thursday, October 5, 2006, 17:38 |
Quoting "H. S. Teoh" <hsteoh@...>:> Hmm. OK. I'm still stuck on the point that infinitives have no time > element associated with them, whereas in TF, esp. in reported speech, a > time element could certainly be present.If Latin can make aspectual distinctions in its infinitives (_monstrare_ "to show" vs _monstravisse_ "to have shown"), it seems little stretch to me to imagine infinitives with temporal distinctions. Andreas
Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |