Re: Finno-Ugric languages

On Sun, 20 Sep 1998 15:49:11 -0400 Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> writes:
>Sally Caves wrote:
>> At one time, however, the Magyars must have been associated with the
>Huns.
>> Who applied, and when, the name *Hun*gary?
>
>Related question: why is it that some nations have a name which
>carries
>over pretty well into other languages (e.g.,
>Spain/Espan~a/Espaigne/Espanha, etc.), while others have totally
>different, and unrelated, names in different languages (e.g.,
>Germany/Deutschland/Alemania)?  I suppose part of it might be
>different
>peoples living in the same country (e.g., Angles --> England, Saxons
>-->
>Susanach (the Irish Gaelic name)), but why didn't other nations
>respect
>the names given by the people thereof, for example, why don't we call
>Germany Dutchland?  And why are the Netherlanders also called Dutch?
>Is
>"Dutch" related to _Deutsch_?  And why did we add -land to some
>nations,
>such as Ireland < Eire, but not to others, e.g., not "Spainland"?
One reason could be the attitude of the 'naming' country to the one that
is being named.  For instance, after the Romans crushed the Bar Kokhba
revolt in Judea, one of the ways they punished the Jews for rebelling was
to change the official name of the area from Judea to Syria-Palestina
(after the Philistines who had been gone for hundreds of years), a name
which has unfortunately stuck.

-Stephen (Steg)

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