Re: Finno-Ugric languages
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, September 20, 1998, 19:49 |
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Sally Caves wrote:
> At one time, however, the Magyars must have been associated with the Huns.
> Who applied, and when, the name *Hun*gary?
Related question: why is it that some nations have a name which carries
over pretty well into other languages (e.g.,
Spain/Espan~a/Espaigne/Espanha, etc.), while others have totally
different, and unrelated, names in different languages (e.g.,
Germany/Deutschland/Alemania)? I suppose part of it might be different
peoples living in the same country (e.g., Angles --> England, Saxons -->
Susanach (the Irish Gaelic name)), but why didn't other nations respect
the names given by the people thereof, for example, why don't we call
Germany Dutchland? And why are the Netherlanders also called Dutch? Is
"Dutch" related to _Deutsch_? And why did we add -land to some nations,
such as Ireland < Eire, but not to others, e.g., not "Spainland"?
--
"God is dead" -- Nietzsche
"Nietzsche is dead" -- God
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