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Re: Polysemy

From:Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Monday, November 17, 2003, 19:37
On Sunday, November 16, 2003, at 06:49 PM, David Peterson wrote:

> Why is polysemy intolerable? > > Ray wrote: > > <<_nb_ = 'all, every' and _nb_ = 'lord'; > _sn_ = 'brother' and _sn_ = '(to) kiss' [verb]>> > > In the writing system, of course, there was no confusion with Egyptian. > So, for example, the /nb/ that was used to mean "every" had no > determinative, whereas the /nb/ that meant "lord" had a human > determinative.
Not always. The determinative could be added but wasn't always used. But I'm well aware of use of determinatives. I don't think they're appropriate for BrSc. ========================================================================= ================ On Sunday, November 16, 2003, at 07:46 PM, Mau Rauszer wrote:
> David Peterson <ThatBlueCat@...> 2003.11.16. 13:49:34 -5h-kor írta: > >> Anyway, it should also be noted that though Egyptian never wrote the >> short >> vowels, they always wrote the long ones. It was as if they felt the >> short >> vowels didn't make a difference, but the long vowels did. Thus far, I >> haven't >> seen a writing system that doesn't have a way of marking some kind of >> vowel at >> all. > > Well, according to my knowledge of Egyptian, they _did_ not indicate the > vowels
Yep - all the authorities I've consulted have so far been in agreement that the Egyptians _never_ indicated vowels, whether long or short. Indeed, I was not aware that we were able to determine even if egyptian had phonemic vowel length.
> but tehere are some consonant signs which modern scolars read > as if they were vowels, ( probably because they were semivowels or were > lost > like the l-like sound which is transliterated as a 3-ish sign and was > used to > transscibe 'a' in foreign names during the New Kingdom )
Oh yes - that's so. It seems to be a convention to pronounce laryngeal & glottal consonants as [a] and, when convenient to do so, /j/ as [i] and /w/ as [u] , just sticking in [E]everywhere else.
> Biblical Hebrew (and I guess, Phoenician too) also did not indicate > vowels but > later scribes devised the system for the vowels to preserve the > pronounciation > since Hebrwe has become a dead language. > > Jus tell me if I'm wrong.
No; AFAIK you are correct. I'm sure there have been and probably still are some pure abjads about. I'm sure John can enlighten us :) Yours, -- Mau Ray =============================================== (home) (work) =============================================== Ray =============================================== (home) (work) ===============================================


Paul Bennett <paul-bennett@...>