Re: Polysemy
From: | Mau Rauszer <maurauser@...> |
Date: | Sunday, November 16, 2003, 19:44 |
David Peterson <ThatBlueCat@...> 2003.11.16. 13:49:34 -5h-kor írta:
> Anyway, it should also be noted that though Egyptian never wrote the short
> vowels, they always wrote the long ones. It was as if they felt the short
> vowels didn't make a difference, but the long vowels did. Thus far, I
> haven't
> seen a writing system that doesn't have a way of marking some kind of
> vowel at
> all.
Well, according to my knowledge of Egyptian, they _did_ not indicate the
vowels but tehere are some consonant signs which modern scolars read
as if they were vowels, ( probably because they were semivowels or were lost
like the l-like sound which is transliterated as a 3-ish sign and was used to
transscibe 'a' in foreign names during the New Kingdom )
Biblical Hebrew (and I guess, Phoenician too) also did not indicate vowels but
later scribes devised the system for the vowels to preserve the pronounciation
since Hebrwe has become a dead language.
Jus tell me if I'm wrong.
Yours,
-- Mau