Theiling Online    Sitemap    Conlang Mailing List HQ   

Re: CHAT: New Member With Questions

From:Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Saturday, March 17, 2001, 10:06
At 6:58 pm +1100 15/3/01, Tristan Alexander McLeay wrote:
>>However, prepositions are prepositions in English. For instance, in that >>sentence "Where do you come from?", it should read "From where do you >>come?"--we just don't talk that way much anymore. > >The fact remains, though, that I, as a Native Australian English speaker do >not say 'From where do you come?',
Nor do I as a native English English speaker. Did any _ever_ say "From where do you come?" I doubt it, except as an artificial hypercorrection. The earlier form was: "Whence do you come?" ("Whence comest thou?" is even earlier, if speaker to one person). Surely, as the use of so-called "prepositions" at end of clauses became more common place, "Where do you come from?" developed as an alternative? [snip]
> >>Remember how teachers always said never to end a sentence with a >>preposition? > >Actually, they never did that to me.
Nor to me - and I was taught grammar, pretty thoroughly as well, in a traditional grammar (where the most important subjects were Latin and cricket!) in the 1950s. I do, however, remember the (apocryphal?) saying of Churchil being quoted - "That is a rule up with which I will not put" - to show how silly the superstition of 'not putting a preposition at the end of a clause' was. It seems our teachers of the 1050s were a little more enlightened than David's. --------------------------------------------------------------------- At 2:08 am -0500 16/3/01, David Peterson wrote: [snip]
>"rule" came to be is because, way back when they were writing grammar for >students in American/British schools, they decided that since you can't end a >sentence with a preposition in Latin, you shouldn't be able to in English
Not, as I've said, in my traditionalist British school.
>(makes no sense, but, nevertheless, that's where the rule came from. They >give the same reason for not allowing split infinitives, e.g., "to boldly go >where no one has gone before" [I'm watching Voyager right now :)]).
Even tho those Latin infinitives which do consist of two parts, e.g. amaturus esse [future active], amatus esse [perfect passive], amatum iri [future passive] _can_ be split! Barmy, if you ask me.
>To make a little more sense, I think there are two things called >"prepositions" in English: true prepositions and locative adverbs. For >instance, the "in" in "I am in the house" is different from "I walk in the >room".
???? ------------------------------------------------------------------ At 9:56 am -0500 16/3/01, Padraic Brown wrote:
>On Fri, 16 Mar 2001, David Peterson wrote:
[snip]
>> For >>instance, the "in" in "I am in the house" is different from "I walk in the >>room". The first is a true preposition, and you can't end a sentence with it > >The Doctor is in.
Quite so - and: The Doctor walked in. -------------------------------------------------------------------- At 8:35 pm -0500 16/3/01, David Peterson wrote:
>In a message dated 3/16/01 6:56:35 AM, pbrown@POLARIS.UMUC.EDU writes: > ><< The Doctor is in. >> > >That's a shortening of "The Doctor is in his office", or something similar. >At least, I always believed so...
Er - you mean, like "The Doctor walked in" is a shortening of "The Doctor walked in the room" or something like that? Another thing I remember being taught in English grammar classes 50 years ago was "By their deeds shall ye know them", i.e. one determines what a word is doing by its function in a sentence whereas in Latin (and Greek) there are specific morphological affixes that help mark out the "part of speech." I guess that because Latin was so central to our education, the English staff were keen to point up the differences between English & Latin, not the similarities. Anyway, we were taught that in both the sentences "The Doctor is in the house" and "The Doctor walked in the room" _in_ is functioning as a preposition, whereas in the sentences "The Doctor is in" and "The Doctor walked in" it is functioning as an adverb. This distinction is recognized in the Jespersen's Novial; in Novial Lexike (1930) we read: -u forma adverbes fro prepositiones: _inu_, _kontru_ = in tum (in dar), konter tum. Li medike es in li hause. Li medike es inu. And doesn't Vorlin use the suffix -u in a very similar way? Ray. ========================================= A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language. [J.G. Hamann 1760] =========================================

Replies

Yoon Ha Lee <yl112@...>
Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>
Raymond Brown <ray.brown@...>