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Re: Danish VOT

From:Lars Finsen <lars.finsen@...>
Date:Tuesday, November 11, 2008, 18:25
Den 11. nov. 2008 kl. 16.07 skrev Benct Philip Jonsson:

> [^1]: I've come to the conclusion that we > probably have an instinctive notion that > voiced stops are the most typical (as in most > distinctive) lenes which creates this > illusion. The gods know it's hard to unlearn, > but it gets us dead wrong when listening to > Danish -- and most Romance varieties:
Well, it's not so difficult when you listen carefully and objectively. But it's true that I've lived through more than half a life finding nothing 'wrong' about the Danish lenes, when in fact there is. Well not actually _wrong_, but you know what I mean.
> in the > dialect of Rome intervocalic /p t tS k/ are or > can be [b_0 d_0 dZ_0 g_0] while /b d dZ g/ > are fully voiced. I heard them all as > 'voiced' and assumed a merger, which my > Italian acquaintances vehemently denied. > It just so happened that I was conditioned > by my L1 to hear those two phone types as > 'the same'.
But are they actually voiceless? Or is their voicing just shorter in duration than the usual voiced stops? The phonetic notation is really confusing here, as for example d_0 to me seems to mean "voiceless voiced dental stop". Or is this the phonetician's notation for "voiceless lenis (dental) stop"? If so, is there some aspiration difference between [t] and [d_0], or are these only notationally and not physically different? LEF