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Re: THEORY: on the teleology of conlanging (was: RE: terminal dialect?)

From:Joshua Shinavier <ajshinav@...>
Date:Tuesday, March 30, 1999, 9:49
> >What if the language in question already has an [r] -- will the pre-existence > >of such a sound tend to hinder this change? > > Not at all. Latin did this sort of change (example: os, osis "mouth" > became os, oris) whereas the 'r' already existed (like in orator, oratoris > which has always been like that even when we had os, osis). > > How about de-voicing of [r]s? > >One particular hypothetical dialect of Aroven does that, giving a sort of > >dry fluttering sound in place of the [r] which sounds a lot like an [x]; > >/r/ is probably the most "unstable" letter in the language... > > I think de-voicing of [r] is likely to happen near to a voiceless > consonnant. Between vowels, it seems very unlikely to me.
Right -- when it's between two vowels it turnes into a flap instead :) For example, in this dialect 'Arove"n' is pronounced, more less, [Ad' o ven], initial r's are pronounced [hr] and r's which precede stops (any stops, not only voiceless ones) and nasals are devoiced (e.g. karn [k&rn] -- is there an ASCII IPA symbol for a devoiced [r]?), especially if that stop or nasal is followed by another vowel (e.g. karna -- sounds like [k&' hna] with a fluttered [h]). Josh