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Re: English sounds `v' and `w'

From:Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...>
Date:Wednesday, September 22, 2004, 13:40
>Hi all, > I don't know if this is silly but I wanted to confirm the exact >difference betwwen the sound `v' and `w' in the English language and their >IPA representation in ASCII. I think that both the sounds `v' and `w' ar >not aspirated in English and the only difference is that `v'(isn't it the >same as the hindi `v'?) is labio-dental and `w' is bilabial. Is this right? > Also is there any difference in the articulation of these two sounds >between US and British English? Also, is there any online resource for >proper pronounciation of the IPA symbols(ie. audio files)? There are some >audios at the IPA site, but they're too noisy to be of much help. > >Shanth >``Quidquid latine dictum sit, altum videtur'' > > > >
V is a labiodental fricative (I believe this is similar to the hindi v although I'm afraid I don't speak hindi); W is an approximant, and it is... I think the word is labio-velar. Pronouncing it, I raise the back of my tongue so that there is only a small gap at the back of my mouth (the velar bit), and also round my lips (the labio-bit). Having said that, a bilabial approximant is a good approximation to w. :) As far as I know, there is no difference between American and British English when it comes to the pronounciation of v and w. This might be a bad suggestion, but if you're trying to get w right you might try pronouncing /u/ (I assume hindi has this sound?) and then shortening it as much as possible... in some languages (the romance languages spring to mind), u has become similar to an english w in some positions in words, and if I try pronouncing /uest/ for west and then shortening the /u/ as much as possible it gets to the point where it sounds almost exactly like west is normally pronounced to me. :)


Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...>