Re: English sounds `v' and `w'
|From:||Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, September 26, 2004, 21:47|
>> suggesting that this had already happened before
>> the romans started writing.
> Unlikely, methinks. It is, however, debatable whether the Classical Latin
> sound was a bilabial approximant [w] or a labio-dental approximant [v\].
>My writing style is convulted. I just wanted to make it clear... I was
saying that the spelling suggested u --> w in some positions before the
romans started writing, not that w --> v (I believe this happened later
as I think you were arguing). :) Sorry... I tend to use lots of commas
and brackets and confuse people.