Re: English sounds `v' and `w'

>> suggesting that this had already happened before
>> the romans started writing.
>
>
> Unlikely, methinks. It is, however, debatable whether the Classical Latin
> sound was a bilabial approximant [w] or a labio-dental approximant [v\].
>
My writing style is convulted. I just wanted to make it clear... I was
saying that the spelling suggested u --> w in some positions before the
romans started writing, not that w --> v (I believe this happened later
as I think you were arguing). :) Sorry... I tend to use lots of commas
and brackets and confuse people.