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Re: English sounds `v' and `w'

From:Ben Poplawski <thebassplayer@...>
Date:Sunday, September 26, 2004, 20:59
On Thu, 23 Sep 2004 07:27:53 +0100, Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> wrote:

>Unlikely, methinks. It is, however, debatable whether the Classical Latin >sound was a bilabial approximant [w] or a labio-dental approximant [v\].
I would go for the *labiovelar* approximate. I'm thinking this because both PIE *w and *gw turned into Latin v. I thought of instances were [w] changed to gu in Spanish and French, but then I remembered that those were German-borrowed words (guerre from war, guard from ward, etc.). Ben