Re: English sounds `v' and `w'
|From:||Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, September 22, 2004, 17:55|
Shanthanu Bhardwaj wrote:
Hindi व (and Swedish |v| BTW) is a labiodental approximant,
IPA ʋ, CXS [v\] and thus falls inbetween English /v/ and /w/:
English /v/ is a labiodental fricative, while English /w/ is a
labiovelar approximant. What you need to do from a Hindi point
of view is to make a tenser pronunciation to get [v] and a
very lax bilabial pronunciation to get an acceptable [w].
If you can get hold of a Tibetan and ask him to pronounce
ངག་དབང་ /Na:waN/ you will hear the right sound in the middle.
/BP 8^) aka Ngawang Jimba
B.Philip Jonsson -- melroch at melroch dot se
Solitudinem faciunt pacem appellant!
> Hi all,
> I don't know if this is silly but I wanted to confirm the exact
> difference betwwen the sound `v' and `w' in the English language and their
> IPA representation in ASCII. I think that both the sounds `v' and `w' ar
> not aspirated in English and the only difference is that `v'(isn't it the
> same as the hindi `v'?) is labio-dental and `w' is bilabial. Is this right?
> Also is there any difference in the articulation of these two sounds
> between US and British English? Also, is there any online resource for
> proper pronounciation of the IPA symbols(ie. audio files)? There are some
> audios at the IPA site, but they're too noisy to be of much help.
> ``Quidquid latine dictum sit, altum videtur''