Re: bilabial vs. labiodental (Was: Re: another silly phonologyquestion)

On Wed, Nov 29, 2000 at 09:42:42PM -0500, Nik Taylor wrote:
> "H. S. Teoh" wrote:
> > It's definitely not [f]. It's [F] (phi in IPA)
>
> Oh?!  So, those dialects still make a distinction between, say, "deaf"
> and "death", /dEf/ and /dEF/?  (Or whatever the vowel would be)
[snip]

Actually, I retract my statement... :-P  I misunderstood the original
statement, which describes it as a labialized [T]. That's certainly [f]. I
misunderstood it as meaning a labial fricative. Silly me! :-P


T

--
INTEL = Only half of "intelligence".