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Re: bilabial vs. labiodental (Was: Re: another silly phonologyquestion)

From:H. S. Teoh <hsteoh@...>
Date:Thursday, November 30, 2000, 3:00
On Wed, Nov 29, 2000 at 09:42:42PM -0500, Nik Taylor wrote:
> "H. S. Teoh" wrote: > > It's definitely not [f]. It's [F] (phi in IPA) > > Oh?! So, those dialects still make a distinction between, say, "deaf" > and "death", /dEf/ and /dEF/? (Or whatever the vowel would be)
[snip] Actually, I retract my statement... :-P I misunderstood the original statement, which describes it as a labialized [T]. That's certainly [f]. I misunderstood it as meaning a labial fricative. Silly me! :-P T -- INTEL = Only half of "intelligence".