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Re: I'm back (OurTongue)

From:Rob H <magwich78@...>
Date:Wednesday, March 19, 2003, 19:21
Hello again, Christophe,

> OurTongue is based on the so-called "proto-syllables", isn't it? If so, those > proto-syllables looks damn IE to me! Nothing against OurTongue, it's an artlang > after all ;)) . But it makes this whole "proto-syllables" stuff pretty not > serious to me ;))) .
Well, have you looked at Mr. Ryan's website, particularly his inventory of Proto-Language monosyllables? There are many ways that they can be used morphologically. In other words, one is not bound to come up with a language similar to IE by using the monosyllables; they can create something completely different if they'd like. Indeed, Mr. Ryan uses them primarily to connect different languages with each other. Yes, the personal inflections look rather IEish, but they look even more similar to Uralic. This was rather intentional. I would even dare to suggest that Finnish's ancestor (Proto-Finno-Ugric?) had a 3sg inflection in -sa: where ":" stands for an umlaut (analogous to the 3sg pronoun); however, the 3pl was formed analogically from the plural active participle sooner or later. The sound law s > h is common in Finnish, and a: seems to be such a weak vowel that it could easily assimilate into the stem vowel with compensatory lengthening, thus giving rise to the modern 3sg inflection (e.g. sanoo 'he/she says'). But enough about reconstructive linguistics ;) . Yes, it is true that OurTongue is something of an artlang; however, it's also (an attempt at) a naturalistic conlang through use of the Proto-Language monosyllables. One of the main design concepts was to make it look like it (or something similar to it) could actually have existed in the past. So it looks related to IE, Uralic, Altaic, and (to a lesser extent) Kartvelian languages. Here is the development of the OurTongue pronouns from the PL monosyllables: PL *me 'tongue, speaker' > OT me 'I' PL *tho-$e 'accompany-ing' > *t@i > OT te 'you' (the idea here is that the listener accompanies the speaker) PL *she(-$e) 'one(-like)' > OT se 'he/she/it' PL *me-no 'speaker-basket=group' > men@ > OT men 'we' PL *tho-$e-no 'accompany-ing-group' > t@in@ > OT ten 'y'all' PL *she(-$e)-no 'one(-like)-group' > sen@ or s@in@ > OT sen 'they' The ergative suffix is -e; it was originally a particle so its vowel quality was preserved through the initial stage of evolution from the Proto-Language (where unstressed vowels became schwas). the following sound law then occurred: e+e > e: (long e) > ei > i. Thus the singular ergative (later nominative) forms are: me-e > me: > mei > mi te-e > te: > tei > ti se-e > se: > sei > si In the plural ergatives, the suffix became -i by analogy with the singular forms. Thus: men-e > mene > meni ten-e > tene > teni sen-e > sene > seni Personally, I like this system because it shows a more ancient inflectional paradigm with the pronouns - such a distinction between nouns and pronouns is common in natural languages. However, do you think that ergative/nominative mi vs. absolutive/accusative me is insufficiently distinctive? In addition, Ryan makes note on his website to an ancient system of verb differentiation between momentary and durative: in original CV-CV forms, stress on the first syllable conveyed a durative meaning, while stress on the second syllable conveyed a momentary meaning. I assume that OT had not diverged from the Proto-Language before this system was in effect. Thus: t?a'-rha 'hand-flies' > dar@ > dara- 'tremble' t?a-rha' 'hand-flies-repeatedly' > d@ra > dera- 'fear' The idea for the second one is trembling repeatedly for some amount of time, as from fear. The schwa in the second derivation became e due to its medial position in the root; subesquently the stress-accent retracted to the first syllable. Do you think there is a sufficient distinction between "dara" and "dera" for rather disparate meanings? The conditional in -le is from PL *nhe, which can mean 'little, fragile, come apart.' My rational for this is that adding that to the verb adds the meaning of 'fragile' to the action, so the verb loses 'stability' -- i.e. it no longer expresses a concrete statement of fact. Does this seem reasonable to you? Oh, and the etymology for the conditional suffix is actually different from that for the allative suffix; the latter comes from -nha-hhe 'move-back-and-forth-go-to.' In my view, the preterite (< perfective) tense formant -i is the most basic, and is appended directly to the inflectionless verb stem; any other formants are added *after* it. Thus, there are four participles: present active, present passive, preterite active, and preterite passive. There are also two basic masdars, one for the present stem and one for the preterite stem. I think this is a simple and elegant solution. Here are the participles and masdars for dara- 'tremble' darava 'trembling' daraiva 'having trembled/having been trembling' darata 'trembled' daraita 'had trembled' (?) darama 'to tremble/trembling (activity)' daraima 'to have trembled/having trembled (activity)/having been trembling (activity)' Perhaps there could also be masdars and participles formed from the conditional stems, e.g. daraleva 'possibly trembling' or darailema 'having possible been trembling.' Yet another idea is using -le as a hypothetical marker, and using something else as a conditional. What do you think? - Rob __________________________________________________ Do you Yahoo!? Yahoo! Platinum - Watch CBS' NCAA March Madness, live on your desktop! http://platinum.yahoo.com

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Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>