Emaelivpeith Joe:
> Henrik Theiling wrote:
> >"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> writes:
> > >The verb "to have prejudices" is quite irregular, and in fact only
> >>resembles its infinitive in the third person: "he has prejudices".
> >>The second person form is "you have biases".
> >
> >Really? That's a funny irregularity. That was a translato then. :-)
>
> I think he's joking. Maybe.
And if he's not joking, then it must only be true for certain people.
I'm a native (Californian) English speaker, and I have no warning
bells going off in my head when I read "you have prejudices."
--
AA
http://conlang.arthaey.com/