Re: Artlangers vs. auxlangers (was Re: Tell your conlang story!)
|From:||Sai Emrys <sai@...>|
|Date:||Friday, March 3, 2006, 21:00|
On 3/1/06, Arthaey Angosii <arthaey@...> wrote:
> Emaelivpeith Joe:
> > Henrik Theiling wrote:
> > >"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> writes:
> > > >The verb "to have prejudices" is quite irregular, and in fact only
> > >>resembles its infinitive in the third person: "he has prejudices".
> > >>The second person form is "you have biases".
> > >
> > >Really? That's a funny irregularity. That was a translato then. :-)
> > I think he's joking. Maybe.
> And if he's not joking, then it must only be true for certain people.
> I'm a native (Californian) English speaker, and I have no warning
> bells going off in my head when I read "you have prejudices."
I second that. Native speaker (new york / california). However, "you
have prejudices" is clearly plural to me - i.e. having multiple
prejudices against the same thing.
A much more common version would be "you are prejudiced", but that's
also more pragmatically blunt ("you have" is softer).