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Re: Artlangers vs. auxlangers (was Re: Tell your conlang story!)

From:Sai Emrys <sai@...>
Date:Friday, March 3, 2006, 21:00
On 3/1/06, Arthaey Angosii <arthaey@...> wrote:
> Emaelivpeith Joe: > > Henrik Theiling wrote: > > >"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> writes: > > > >The verb "to have prejudices" is quite irregular, and in fact only > > >>resembles its infinitive in the third person: "he has prejudices". > > >>The second person form is "you have biases". > > > > > >Really? That's a funny irregularity. That was a translato then. :-) > > > > I think he's joking. Maybe. > > And if he's not joking, then it must only be true for certain people. > I'm a native (Californian) English speaker, and I have no warning > bells going off in my head when I read "you have prejudices."
I second that. Native speaker (new york / california). However, "you have prejudices" is clearly plural to me - i.e. having multiple prejudices against the same thing. A much more common version would be "you are prejudiced", but that's also more pragmatically blunt ("you have" is softer). - Sai