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Re: Settle a Bet

From:Bryan Maloney <bjm10@...>
Date:Tuesday, February 26, 2002, 18:01
>On Sun, 24 Feb 2002 20:33:14 -0500 Christopher B Wright ><faceloran@...> writes: >> Question: is "eat" in "she is eating" transitive or intransitive? >> [snip] >> Well, actually, in that example, it's a participle. Noun forms, even of >> verbs, don't have transitivity (transitiveness?), so it's not >transitive >> in another way. > >A couple of people said something like this, and I feel like I should >contradict. From a hyper-traditional grammar this may be true--nouns >don't have transitivity, so neither does a gerund like "eating." But >that's absurd--"eating" in "She is eating" doesn't function like a noun,
I always saw the "is <gerund>" construction in English as a "continuative tense", myself.
>I argue that even in a sentence like "Eating makes me fat," the word >"eating" is a verb. That's because you can freely add an object: "Eating
"Eating makes me fat." == "The act of eating makes me fat." "Eating" is the name of a specific type of activity. "Eating X makes me fat." may very well be a different grammatical form, even if the orthographic and spoken forms might be identical. They certainly fulfill different functions. --