Bryan Maloney wrote:
> I wouldn't go so far as _Science and Sanity_ claims (indeed, a great deal
> of what Korzybski attacked as "Aristotelianism" is actually
> Neoplatonism), but I will say that treating "logic" as being somehow pure
> of grammatical and social influence is making an assumption that lacks
> sufficient evidence.
That's a much more reasonable claim than that Aristotle's logic is
nothing but Greek grammar, and I certainly won't contest it.
> Of course, one should take all my comments on this particular thread in
> light of how I have tended to respond to all of the "ain't we so
> wonderful for being conlangers" chest-thumping type threads...
I've too little chest to thump here -- I'm mostly a "conlanger
wannabe." Too little sticktoitiveness to do much more than produce a
quick sketch or outline here or a few ideas for phonology there.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
edheil@postmark.net
---------------------------------------------------------------------