Re: CHAT: Synesthesia and conlanging (was Re: The Conlang
| From: | Thomas R. Wier <artabanos@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, December 3, 1999, 22:24 |
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Charles wrote:
> Ed Heil wrote:
>
> > but other than that lunatic
> > fringe I've never heard of anyone writing off Aristotle's logic as
> > thinly disguised Greek grammar.
>
> I thought that this contention was well-founded, based on a comparison
> of the "categories" with various grammatical features of Greek [1].
> There must be some good URLs, but I'm going by the Scholastic
> Metaphysics (sorta pre-Boolean logic + deism) I read many years ago.
> I don't dismiss it; today's (lack of) philosophy is inferior!
>
> [1] I know *no* Greek whatsoever, and there were many significantly
> different varieties of it ...
If his logic was just "thinly disguised Greek grammar", why would
Aristotle create a logical system in which double negative statements
( -(-P) ) equaled positive statements ( P ) when Classical Greek is
replete with double negatives all over the place?
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Tom Wier <artabanos@...>
ICQ#: 4315704 AIM: Deuterotom
Website: <http://www.angelfire.com/tx/eclectorium/>
"Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero."
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