Re: CHAT: Synesthesia and conlanging (was Re: The Conlang

I found a web page which explains in passing that Emile Benveniste
claimed that Aristotle's categories derived from Greek grammar, and
that Derrida somehow criticized this, attempting to turn it on its
head (that Aristotelian philosophy created Greek grammar?).  Whatever.
 But you are correct that someone a bit more eminent than Alfred
Korzybski made claims about Greek philosophy deriving from Greek
linguistics -- whether or not they were
correct.

http://www.stanford.edu/dept/HPS/RethinkingSciCiv/etexts/Hart/Transla
ting.html


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                       edheil@postmark.net
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Charles wrote:

> Ed Heil wrote:
>
> > but other than that lunatic
> > fringe I've never heard of anyone writing off Aristotle's logic as
> > thinly disguised Greek grammar.
>
> I thought that this contention was well-founded, based on a comparison
> of the "categories" with various grammatical features of Greek [1].
> There must be some good URLs, but I'm going by the Scholastic
> Metaphysics (sorta pre-Boolean logic + deism) I read many years ago.
> I don't dismiss it; today's (lack of) philosophy is inferior!
>
> [1] I know *no* Greek whatsoever, and there were many significantly
> different varieties of it ...