R A Brown wrote:
> Benct Philip Jonsson wrote:
>> > I'll just concentrate and keeping the thing as close
>> > to early Koine Greek as I can, but dropping,
>> > hopefully, all grammatical flexions. I'll return the
>> > question of a conhistory/ althistory when the thing
>> > has taken better shape.
>>
>> Wouldn't then the best scenario be one where (South) Western
>> Europe was Graecized rather than Latinized, and
...
> These are interesting scenarios - but IMO are more appropriate for
> devising a Greek derived language, rather producing a language which has
> a similar relationship to ancient Greek as "Latino sine flexione" has to
> Classical Latin.
>
> At the moment I'm disregarding all scenarios, conhistories etc -
> interesting tho they might be - and am concentrating on the language
> itself (which presents more challenges than "Latino sine flexione"). But
> I guess if Alexander had conquer the west and his descendants had
> defeated the Carthaginians, the Greek, not Latin, would have become the
> auxlang of the whole of medieval Europe. We could then have a scenario
> in which in 1903 a certain Professor Josephos Peanou proposed reviving a
> "Greek without flexions" as an artificial auxlang :)
Isn't that exactly what Benct was suggesting: "Παιάνος spoke a
'Ephellenic' language derived from Greek, and the only classical
prestige language of his Europe was Attic and Koiné Greek?". Παιάνος is
would obviously be Latinised as "Paeanus" and then in Italian would be
"Peano".
--
Tristan.