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Re: partial letter replacement in languages?

From:Rodlox <rodlox@...>
Date:Saturday, December 11, 2004, 10:49
----- Original Message -----
From: Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Saturday, December 11, 2004 12:18 AM
Subject: Re: partial letter replacement in languages?


> On Friday, December 10, 2004, at 05:05 , Rodlox wrote: > > [snip] > > > > what I meant was, such as -> > > > > /Murad/ becomes /Murat/ * > > ..yet... > > /Abdulhamid/ does not become /Abtulhamid/
> The Murad who was a student of mine last year never became a Murat at any > time :)
my apologies, then. I've been reading history books published in various countries, and I had noticed the d->t shift (such as Murad/Murat) in, at least, the Turkish Republic. I did not mean to imply that it was true for all Turkic or Arabic languages...my apologies if I accidentally gave the impression that is was true.
> In any case I would hardly expect /bd/ (two voiced plosive) to change to > /bt/ (but I would expect /bt/ to be assimilated to /bd/).
ah. if I might ask, what is /bt/ that is could be assimilated, whereas /bd/ (a voiced plosive) could not? *curious*
> With final plosives it is quite common for the distinction between voiced > & voiceless to be neutralized. Most commonly, as in German, Russian, > Breton and IIRC Turkish, they are all devoiced. Some languages, like
Welsh,
> prefer voicing the whole like.

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Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>