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Re: fallire (was: a King's proverb)

From:Dan Jones <feuchard@...>
Date:Thursday, June 21, 2001, 7:11
Raymond Brown wrote:

> But if Brithenig has ffalluir, it means that B. would have changed an > original *ffallir? *ffaillir? for analogous reasons also _and_ would have > made the same semantic shifts in meaning as French _falloir_. A tad to > co-incidental to my way of thinking.
I only suggested ffalluir because the French -oi- seems to become B. -ui-.From that, maybe *ffellir would be better, Andrew? If you find that too coincidental, why not a construction like "lla gos es a fi",. like the Cornish "res yu dhym"? I don't think parallel semantic shifts in neighboring languages are too unlikely, though. Dan ---------------------------------- La plus belle fois qu'on m'a dit "je t'aime" c'était un mec qui me l'a dit... Francis Lalane ----------------------------------
> Ray. > > > > > > ========================================= > A mind which thinks at its own expense > will always interfere with language. > [J.G. Hamann 1760] > ========================================= >

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andrew <hobbit@...>