Re: fallire (was: a King's proverb)

Raymond Brown wrote:

> But if Brithenig has ffalluir, it means that B. would have changed an
> original *ffallir? *ffaillir? for analogous reasons also _and_ would have
> made the same semantic shifts in meaning as French _falloir_.  A tad to
> co-incidental to my way of thinking.
I only suggested ffalluir because the French -oi- seems to become
B. -ui-.From that, maybe *ffellir would be better, Andrew? If you find that
too coincidental, why not a construction like "lla gos es a fi",. like the
Cornish "res yu dhym"?

I don't think parallel semantic shifts in neighboring languages are too
unlikely, though.

Dan

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La plus belle fois qu'on m'a dit
          "je t'aime"
                   c'était un mec
                             qui me l'a dit...
Francis Lalane
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> Ray.
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> =========================================
> A mind which thinks at its own expense
> will always interfere with language.
>                    [J.G. Hamann 1760]
> =========================================
>

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