Re: ontology of glottalized segments?
From: | I. K. Peylough <ikpeylough@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, August 11, 2004, 10:32 |
On Wed, 11 Aug 2004 01:00:19 -0500, Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
wrote:
>Hi all.
>
>Does anyone know any phonetic or phonological facts about how
>glottalized consonants arise? I've heard that acoustically they
>sometimes are treated as "hypervoiceless". I'm trying to come
>up with a way for them to arise naturally in Phaleran historical
>phonology without having to make reference to borrowings from
>C'ali, which, of course, has plenty of them, and would thus be too
>easy.
>
>(Dirk, do you know?)
Not having any access to reaserch or theoretical works myself, I'd also be
interested in seeing possible answers.
My exposure to glottalized consonants comes from doing exercises in a book;
I've never observed the critters in their native habitat. But, based on
that, when I tried to put them in words, it seemed that they were much much
easier before a glottal stop, or some other voiceless sound. Likewise,
implosives were much easier _after_ a glottal stop or voiceless consonant.
Could this have something to do with the question?
I
> =========================================================================
>Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
>Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right
>University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of
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>Chicago, IL 60637