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Re: ontology of glottalized segments?

From:I. K. Peylough <ikpeylough@...>
Date:Wednesday, August 11, 2004, 10:32
On Wed, 11 Aug 2004 01:00:19 -0500, Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
wrote:

>Hi all. > >Does anyone know any phonetic or phonological facts about how >glottalized consonants arise? I've heard that acoustically they >sometimes are treated as "hypervoiceless". I'm trying to come >up with a way for them to arise naturally in Phaleran historical >phonology without having to make reference to borrowings from >C'ali, which, of course, has plenty of them, and would thus be too >easy. > >(Dirk, do you know?)
Not having any access to reaserch or theoretical works myself, I'd also be interested in seeing possible answers. My exposure to glottalized consonants comes from doing exercises in a book; I've never observed the critters in their native habitat. But, based on that, when I tried to put them in words, it seemed that they were much much easier before a glottal stop, or some other voiceless sound. Likewise, implosives were much easier _after_ a glottal stop or voiceless consonant. Could this have something to do with the question? I
> ========================================================================= >Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally, >Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right >University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of >1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter. >Chicago, IL 60637