Re: Middle English Verbal Prefix i-
| From: | caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, March 13, 2006, 15:43 |
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On 3/13/06, caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...> wrote:
>> Under the entry for "yclept," a word I've always loved:
>>
>> "Middle English _ycleped_, Old English _gecleopod_, past
participle
>> of _clipian_, _cleopian_, to speak, call." The derivation of _y_
>> (_i_) from _ge_ is clearly seen. The infinitive form, in Modern
>> English, is "clepe."
>"Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:
>Are you saying that there is supposedly still a verb "to clepe" in
>Modern English? Where, pray, is it current??
Sorry! I didn't mention that both entries, "yclept" & "clepe," are
labeled as archaic.
My question is: What is the criterion for including some archaic
forms
in a modern dictionary, while not including others? Occurrence in
Shakespeare et al.?
Charlie