Re: Old Norse (was Re: New to the list)

"Thomas R. Wier" wrote:
> Sounds reasonable.  That's about contemporary with the early period of the
> rise of Britain's bourgeoisie.
Except, you have to explain why the British bourgeoisie caused the loss
of formal/familiar you, but not the same loss in any other European
language.  In other European langs, the rules for determining formal
forms versus familiar forms were simply modified.

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