Ladino, Hs, and Fs
|From:||Brian Betty <bbetty@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, February 4, 1999, 14:03|
On Wed, 3 Feb 1999 18:25:39 -0500 Carlos Thompson
"I don't think that the explanation is the lack of "f" in Hebrew (was it
written in Hebrew alphabet?) after 'fasis' and 'fue' use that 'f'."
Stephen wrote: "There is an F in Hebrew....it's an allophone of P. I think
what the person was talking about who was talking about Fs is that many
Latin words with F turned into H in Spanish, like "hacer". It was written
in the Hebrew alphabet, the [f]s were marked with a bar over the letter to
distinguish them from the [p]s."
Right, so Carlos' statement applies to this situation - if the words are
being written 'fasis' and 'fue,' might that not suggest that f>h>0 had not
yet occurred, so 'izo' could *not* be the same as modern Spanish 'hizo.' I
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