Ladino, Hs, and Fs
| From: | Brian Betty <bbetty@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, February 4, 1999, 14:03 |
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On Wed, 3 Feb 1999 18:25:39 -0500 Carlos Thompson
<cthompso@...> writes:
"[]I don't think that the explanation is the lack of "f" in Hebrew (was it
written in Hebrew alphabet?) after 'fasis' and 'fue' use that 'f'."
-- Carlos
Stephen wrote: "There is an F in Hebrew....it's an allophone of P. I think
what the person was talking about who was talking about Fs is that many
Latin words with F turned into H in Spanish, like "hacer". It was written
in the Hebrew alphabet, the [f]s were marked with a bar over the letter to
distinguish them from the [p]s."
Right, so Carlos' statement applies to this situation - if the words are
being written 'fasis' and 'fue,' might that not suggest that f>h>0 had not
yet occurred, so 'izo' could *not* be the same as modern Spanish 'hizo.' I
think!?!?!
BB
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