Re: Language superiority, improvement, etc.
From: | Tommie Powell <tommiepowell@...> |
Date: | Thursday, October 15, 1998, 1:56 |
Tom Wier wrote:
> ... We have just gone through another run of the
> question of whether or not it is possible for natlangs
> to be more logical or better than one another. What makes them different
> from conlangs? I mean, they are both products of the human mind, and
> of human societal interactions, and both sets of languages are in some sense
> also consious creations of people, insofar as natlangs are the creations of
> communities, while conlangs are the creations, for the most part, of
> individuals. What makes conlangs any different _qualitatively_? Are they
> somehow not subject to the same laws that have governed language since
> the dawn of time? I think this concept is _highly_ suspect.
I agree with you. Even computer programming languages seem, to me, to be "subject to the
same laws that have governed language since the dawn of time." I've done a lot of thinking
about what those "laws" might be, and I suppose some other people in this group have also
done so. Would you (or any of you) like to begin a new thread, on that topic?
-- Tommie