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Re: Recalled to life

From:Nathaniel G. Lew <natlew@...>
Date:Tuesday, October 15, 2002, 4:13
On Mon, 14 Oct 2002 23:44:03 +0200, Christophe Grandsire
<christophe.grandsire@...> wrote:

>No. Most Asian languages just have a way to pluralise pronouns even if
they
>have no way at all to pluralise nouns. At worst, they will use
reduplication or
>specialise some pronouns for plural use and others for singular use.
I stand corrected. Still, strictly speaking, inclusive "we" means "I and you (and possibley they)", and exclusive "we" means "I and they". So I find it semantically odd to form the word for "we" by pluralizing the word for "I", as if it meant "lots of me's". It brings to my mind images of cloning: the Boys from Brazil, perhaps, could quite logically use such a pronoun.
>Now, if your language really doesn't distinguish singular from plural in >pronouns, or only optionally, that's no problem. But don't try to say
that most
>European languages do so when English is alone in that matter (and then
only
>some dialects of English).
Fair enough, but you mistook my point. I wasn't trying to make a global statement about the pronouns in those European languages, just to point out that there are numerous examples of individual 2nd-person pronouns that have both singular and plural meanings. The European examples were ready at hand, because I have actually studied all those languages more or less. Whatever the (severe) limitations on the use of you, vous, Sie, and vy are in actual speech situations, when used correctly there is almost always enough information in the grammatical and pragmatic context to determine whether the intended meaning is singular or plural. From that fact, I deduce that it just isn't that hard to figure out if a person is addressing an individual or a group. - Nat

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bnathyuw <bnathyuw@...>