From: | David Barrow <davidab@...> |
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Date: | Monday, April 21, 2003, 17:17 |
John Cowan wrote:> David Barrow scripsit: > > > fabol? fabor maybe, but fabol? I'm not aware of any Spanish speaker who would > > confuse l and r > > Definitely. I suspect the last sound is either [w] or [a] with the > non-syllabic diacritic (inverted breve below), like German "-r". >Like a non-rhotic Spanish accent? You say you often see these signs, where? what country? what do the rest of the signs say? David Barrow
John Cowan <cowan@...> | |
Joseph Bridwell <zhosh@...> |