From: | Muke Tever <muke@...> |
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Date: | Monday, April 21, 2003, 17:51 |
From: "John Cowan" <cowan@...>> David Barrow scripsit: > > fabol? fabor maybe, but fabol? I'm not aware of any Spanish speaker whowould> > confuse l and r > > Definitely. I suspect the last sound is either [w] or [a] with the > non-syllabic diacritic (inverted breve below), like German "-r".When I hear it, it's more like the tap [r] is unreleased, which makes it indeed sound very much like the Spanish [l]. *Muke! -- http://www.frath.net/