Thanks for elaborating on this.
>Not that I'm aware of. The lack of distinction between the
>underlying /L/ and /j/ does produce orthographic confusion.
Being a native speaker of English, I work daily with a language which is
rife with similar & worse situations.
>Uncountable children write |haya| 'there be' (subjunctive)
>as |halla| 's/he finds'. Same goes for /s/ and /T/ ("z").
And living in the states, I'm often treated to signage, written by native
speakers of Spanish, wherein "h" is dropped - "Se abla español."
>ask anyone to write |utensilio| -- in Argentina almost
>everybody writes "utensillo" and says [utEn'sij\o].
>In Argentina there might also be minimal problems with the
>pronunciation of the trilled "rr" in some northern provinces,
>which is almost unvoiced and with friction.
Is this possibly a localized shift due in part to phonemes found in the
pre-colonization indigenous languages there? Or does it appear to be
spontaneous? or ?
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