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Re: Umlaut (?)

From:JS Bangs <jaspax@...>
Date:Thursday, August 22, 2002, 18:57
Balazs Sudar sikyal:

> Hi all! > > So I ask again two questions: > > 1. Is the system described OK like this?
That depends. There isn't anything particularly unnatural as you've described it, so yes, it's OK. My suggestion is that you make the results a little more uniform--it's already pretty good, but not great.
> 2. How would you call it? ;-)
I-affection, or umlaut. Really, the esoteric arguments of these two guys shouldn't bother you too much ;-).
> I tried to create a system like in natural languages. But I have problem > with the terms that don't appear in german linguistics, because I'm > studying only that. It was like german umlaut, that's why I thought it > was umlaut. I only decided to do that change, whatever it's called. What > do you think it is? And is it correct as I've described it?
This isn't like German umlaut, since it is affecting completely different things. But it's still a kind of vowel-affection, and if that's what you wanted, then you got it. Jesse S. Bangs jaspax@u.washington.edu http://students.washington.edu/jaspax/ "If you look at a thing nine hundred and ninety-nine times, you are perfectly safe; if you look at it the thousandth time, you are in frightful danger of seeing it for the first time." --G.K. Chesterton