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Re: R: Re: Languages

From:Mangiat <mangiat@...>
Date:Monday, November 6, 2000, 13:53
Mikael Johansson wrote:

> > Probably. But Latin has a special rule for Present participle
> > IIRC. > > More or less... There is one whole class of adjectives, with the same form > in nominative singular for all genders, in which the present participle is > included. And as a special rule, the present participle has the singular > ablative ending "-e" and not "-i" _when_ it functions as a verb and not an > adjective (i.e. in constructions such as ablative absolute etc.)
Yup. If amans (lover, loving one) is used as an adj., it bears the -i ablative ending. When used as a verb it bears -e ending. Now, $1000000 question: what about if used as a nominalized adj. (the lover)? My guess is that it should bear the -e ending, being now a 3rd declension masculine *noun* with dental pattern. But I might be wrong (really, this point is one of those who have always make me wonder about Latin morphology!). What do ya think? Luca