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Re: R: Re: Languages

From:Mikael Johansson <mikael.johansson@...>
Date:Monday, November 6, 2000, 18:20
> Mikael Johansson wrote: > > > > Probably. But Latin has a special rule for Present participle > declension, > > > IIRC. > > > > More or less... There is one whole class of adjectives, with the same
> > in nominative singular for all genders, in which the present participle
> > included. And as a special rule, the present participle has the singular > > ablative ending "-e" and not "-i" _when_ it functions as a verb and not
> > adjective (i.e. in constructions such as ablative absolute etc.) > > Yup. If amans (lover, loving one) is used as an adj., it bears the -i > ablative ending. When used as a verb it bears -e ending. Now, $1000000 > question: what about if used as a nominalized adj. (the lover)? My guess
> that it should bear the -e ending, being now a 3rd declension masculine > *noun* with dental pattern. But I might be wrong (really, this point is
> of those who have always make me wonder about Latin morphology!). What do
> think?
Probably (I'll forward this to my professor and ask about his qualified opinion :-) it wouldn't be amans at all but amator (stem+agent suffix). Btw, amans is not lover but rather present participle -- loving. Loving one is already the nominalization of the verbal adjective. A quick peer into Lewis&Scott (online @ and click the link ;-) yields that in fact amans is only operable as a present participle.
> Luca
// Mikael Johansson